Omnimaga
General Discussion => Other Discussions => Math and Science => Topic started by: squidgetx on February 23, 2011, 07:46:39 pm
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So according to our trusty calculators...
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(1/2)!=(1/2)\/pi
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(3/2)!=(3/4)\/pi
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(5/2)!=(15/8)\/pi
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(7/2)!=(105/16)\/pi
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(9/2)!=(945/32)\/pi
Now, my question is...Why?
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That is bizarre.
I don't really understand how taking a factorial of a fraction makes sense, though.
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Yeah, the factorial function only allows multiples of 1/2 or 1/4, I don't remember... And I dunno why.
Also, that factorial+square root of pi thing is weird. I want a proof.
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gamma_function#Alternative_definitions
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gamma_function#General
I'm not very knowledgeable in this subject, but Wikipedia might help here.
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Yeah, apparently it has to do with something called the Riemann Zeta Function, which also plays a part in a proof that shows that 1+2+3+...(to infinity)=-1/12 O.o
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>_>/me hears you liek Riemann Zeta functions?
If you are looking into taking factorials of fractions, you will want to look into the gamma function... which has ties with the Riemann Zeta function :D
To be honest, I never noticed that the calc returned results for those fractions :D
Hmm...
1
1*3
1*3*5
1*3*5*7
1*3*5*7*9
...