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squidgetx:
k so basically I was wondering if proof by induction is valid if, for the first step, you prove for x=0 instead of x=1.
Using domino logic, it's really a matter of whether you decide to start counting from 0 or 1 (which is where I got the idea to ask you guys....;)

kthxbai

meishe91:
I'm not exactly sure what you are asking...could you please explain more?

calcdude84se:
Yeah, it should be valid.
meishe: squidgetx is referring to proofs by induction, which typically work by proving that statement p is true for x=1, and p is true for x+1 if p is true for x. Therefore, p is true for all natural numbers. He's asking if it's valid to start at x=0, rather than x=1. I said yes

meishe91:
Ah ok. Well i don't quite know still but I'll look it up. Thanks though.

squidgetx:
Thanks

Meishe; quick explanation of proof by induction using domino's....heh heh

Statement 1: The 1st domino falls over
Statement 2: If a domino falls over, the one after it falls over

Therefore, all the dominoes fall over

So in proofs by induction, you prove that a statement is true for 1 (or 0, as calc84se says), then assume it is true for some constant, k, and the prove it's true for k+1

Calc84se, if what you've said is true, then I just proved Euler's formula w/o any calculus :D (kinda random I know but ever since I saw that xkcd where e^(pi i)=-1 I've never been completely satisfied with the explanations (mainly b/c i'm not as advanced in calculus yet >.<)

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